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Old 11-03-2004, 05:38 PM   #1
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If a person is born without senses...

This is a question that came in my mind a good while back. I was intrigued by it, and even more with the question that followed.

If a person is born without the ability to sense his or her surrounding environment, then can that person think at all?

Without something about which to think, a person has no ground, no experience, no memory on which to rest any thoughts. That person cannot detect a thing that exists. To that person, nothing, not even that person's self, exists.

Now the second question.

It is socially accepted by most Christians that God is the creator of everything and that therefore He is, timewise, before everything. How can this be so?

If God is a thing that thinks, and God is before everything that exists, then God cannot really think. Is God a thing that thinks, or is God automated (assuming that this God does exist)? If God is not a thing that thinks, then how can God love?
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Old 11-03-2004, 06:04 PM   #2
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its a verry interesting question and has valad points,
i particularly like the "omnipotent", "omniscient", "infailable"

if god knows everything past present and future, and can not be wrong then god can not change any of it, making god not all porwerfull...........or god can change things because god is all powerfull but that means that god is either not infailable or not omniscient...............

most christians i know answere the question with "he just is". but a friend of mine put it this way..........the true nature of god is beyond our capability to comprehend so we do the best we can to try and understand....in other words......try to teach a 3 year old trgonometry and see what happens
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Old 11-06-2004, 04:54 AM   #3
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I have developed further into my question. An additional query has intrigued me.

I now know why a person can't think without the memory of senses. Senses are required to think. Whatever thought may come up in a person's mind, that person must think of it by either sight, sound, taste, smell, touch, or whatever to provide a connotation for the thought. Even abstract ideas must be thought using the senses.

In Descartes's meditations, he eliminates use of the senses in order to find absolute truth. He says that by thinking, he must exist, because he is a thing that thinks. However, thinking requires senses. By mentally stating, "I think, therefore I am," he is using either his auditory senses in creating that statement, or perhaps visual senses as though he is reading it. So was Descartes taking the right step in his proving our existence?
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Old 11-06-2004, 06:12 AM   #4
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You're trying to apply fallible, finite thoughts/philosophies to an infallible/infinite being/existence. Doesn't translate...so it really can't be answered. The finite cannot grasp fully, the infinite, nor the fallible, the infallible.

Interesting thoughts, but hypotheticals really are just that...hypothetical, and therefore, for the most part...impractical and pointless.

No offense meant. *shrugs*
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Old 11-06-2004, 02:34 PM   #5
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Old 11-08-2004, 03:08 PM   #6
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Well technically Helen Keller had some senses, but as I recall she could neither hear nor see. Pretty much all thought is based on hearing and sight.
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What next time? I may never think of anything ever again.
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